SY0-701 Free Exam Study Guide! (Updated 765 Questions)
SY0-701 Dumps for CompTIA Security+ Certified Exam Questions and Answer
NEW QUESTION # 326
Which of the following teams combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization's critical systems?
- A. Purple
- B. Yellow
- C. Blue
- D. Red
Answer: A
Explanation:
Purple is the team that combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization's critical systems. Purple is not a separate team, but rather a collaboration between the red team and the blue team. The red team is the offensive team that simulates attacks and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization's systems. The blue team is the defensive team that monitors and protects the organization's systems from real and simulated threats. The purple team exists to ensure and maximize the effectiveness of the red and blue teams by integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team into a single narrative that improves the overall security posture of the organization. Red, blue, and yellow are other types of teams involved in security testing, but they do not combine both offensive and defensive techniques. The yellow team is the team that builds software solutions, scripts, and other programs that the blue team uses in the security testing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1331; Penetration Testing: Understanding Red, Blue, & Purple Teams3
NEW QUESTION # 327
Which of the following is most likely associated with introducing vulnerabilities on a corporate network by the deployment of unapproved software?
- A. Script kiddies
- B. Shadow IT
- C. Hacktivists
- D. Competitors
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 328
A company filed a complaint with its IT service provider after the company discovered the service provider's external audit team had access to some of the company's confidential information.
Which of the following is the most likely reason the company filed the complaint?
- A. The MOU had basic clauses from a template.
- B. A required NDA had not been signed.
- C. A WO had not been mutually approved.
- D. A SOW had not been agreed to by the client.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 329
A systems administrator receives an alert that a company's internal file server is very slow and is only working intermittently. The systems administrator reviews the server management software and finds the following information about the server:
Which of the following indicators most likely triggered this alert?
- A. Network saturation
- B. Resource consumption
- C. Concurrent session usage
- D. Account lockout
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 330
A security analyst is reviewing the following logs:
Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?
- A. Account forgery
- B. Password spraying
- C. Brute-force
- D. Pass-t he-hash
Answer: B
Explanation:
Password spraying is a type of brute force attack that tries common passwords across several accounts to find a match. It is a mass trial-and-error approach that can bypass account lockout protocols. It can give hackers access to personal or business accounts and information. It is not a targeted attack, but a high-volume attack tactic that uses a dictionary or a list of popular or weak passwords12.
The logs show that the attacker is using the same password ("password123") to attempt to log in to different accounts ("admin", "user1", "user2", etc.) on the same web server. This is a typical pattern of password spraying, as the attacker is hoping that at least one of the accounts has a weak password that matches the one they are trying. The attacker is also using a tool called Hydra, which is one of the most popular brute force tools, often used in cracking passwords for network authentication3.
Account forgery is not the correct answer, because it involves creating fake accounts or credentials to impersonate legitimate users or entities. There is no evidence of account forgery in the logs, as the attacker is not creating any new accounts or using forged credentials.
Pass-the-hash is not the correct answer, because it involves stealing a hashed user credential and using it to create a new authenticated session on the same network. Pass-the-hash does not require the attacker to know or crack the password, as they use the stored version of the password to initiate a new session4. The logs show that the attacker is using plain text passwords, not hashes, to try to log in to the web server.
Brute-force is not the correct answer, because it is a broader term that encompasses different types of attacks that involve trying different variations of symbols or words until the correct password is found. Password spraying is a specific type of brute force attack that uses a single common password against multiple accounts5. The logs show that the attacker is using password spraying, not brute force in general, to try to gain access to the web server. Reference = 1: Password spraying: An overview of password spraying attacks ... - Norton, 2: Security: Credential Stuffing vs. Password Spraying - Baeldung, 3: Brute Force Attack: A definition + 6 types to know | Norton, 4: What is a Pass-the-Hash Attack? - CrowdStrike, 5: What is a Brute Force Attack? | Definition, Types & How It Works - Fortinet
NEW QUESTION # 331
An attacker used XSS to compromise a web server. Which of the following solutions could have been used to prevent this attack?
- A. WAF
- B. NGFW
- C. UTM
- D. NAC
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is designed to protect web applications from attacks such as Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between the internet and a web application.
NEW QUESTION # 332
The Cruel Information Security Officer (CISO) asks a security analyst to install an OS update to a production VM that has a 99% uptime SLA. The CISO tells me analyst the installation must be done as quickly as possible. Which of the following courses of action should the security analyst take first?
- A. Take a snapshot of the VM.
- B. Install the patch Immediately.
- C. Log in to the server and perform a health check on the VM.
- D. Confirm that the backup service is running.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before applying any updates or patches to a production VM, especially one with a 99% uptime SLA, it is crucial to first take a snapshot of the VM. This snapshot serves as a backup that can be quickly restored in case the update causes any issues, ensuring that the system can be returned to its previous state without violating the SLA. This step mitigates risk and is a standard best practice in change management for critical systems.
NEW QUESTION # 333
A user is attempting to patch a critical system, but the patch fails to transfer. Which of the following access controls is most likely inhibiting the transfer?
- A. Least privilege
- B. Attribute-based
- C. Role-based
- D. Time of day
Answer: A
Explanation:
The least privilege principle states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This helps to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary actions that could compromise security. In this case, the patch transfer might be failing because the user or process does not have the appropriate permissions to access the critical system or the network resources needed for the transfer. Applying the least privilege principle can help to avoid this issue by granting the user or process the necessary access rights for the patching activity.
NEW QUESTION # 334
A systems administrator is changing the password policy within an enterprise environment and wants this update implemented on all systems as quickly as possible. Which of the following operating system security measures will the administrator most likely use?
- A. Enabling PAP
- B. Pushing GPO update
- C. Deploying PowerShell scripts
- D. Updating EDR profiles
Answer: B
Explanation:
A group policy object (GPO) is a mechanism for applying configuration settings to computers and users in an Active Directory domain. By pushing a GPO update, the systems administrator can quickly and uniformly enforce the new password policy across all systems in the domain. Deploying PowerShell scripts, enabling PAP, and updating EDR profiles are not the most efficient or effective ways to change the password policy within an enterprise environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 115; Password Policy - Windows Security
NEW QUESTION # 335
An administrator is reviewing a single server's security logs and discovers the following;
Which of the following best describes the action captured in this log file?
- A. Forgotten password by the user
- B. Failed password audit
- C. Brute-force attack
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: C
Explanation:
A brute-force attack is a type of attack that involves systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords or keys until the correct one is found. The log file shows multiple failed login attempts in a short amount of time, which is a characteristic of a brute-force attack.
The attacker is trying to guess the password of the Administrator account on the server. The log file also shows the event ID 4625, which indicates a failed logon attempt, and the status code
0xC000006A, which means the user name is correct but the password is wrong. These are indicators of compromise (IoC) that suggest a brute-force attack is taking place.
NEW QUESTION # 336
A company discovers that an employee was paid by a competitor to save internal business files to a thumb drive and deliver it to the competitor. Which of the following is most likely the employee's motivation?
- A. Financial gain
- B. Data exfiltration
- C. Blackmail
- D. Revenge
Answer: A
Explanation:
The employee was compensated by a competitor, making financial gain the most likely motivation for stealing and delivering internal business files.
NEW QUESTION # 337
An employee clicked a malicious link in an email and downloaded malware onto the company's computer network. The malicious program exfiltrated thousands of customer records. Which of the following should the company implement to prevent this in the future?
- A. Network monitoring
- B. Endpoint protection
- C. Data loss prevention
- D. User awareness training
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:User awareness training is essential in preventing security incidents caused by human error, such as clicking on malicious links. Employees need to be educated on recognizing phishing attempts, verifying email senders, and avoiding suspicious downloads.
* Network monitoringdetects and alerts on malicious activity but does not prevent employees from clicking on harmful links.
* Endpoint protectioncan mitigate malware infections but is not foolproof, especially if users continue to fall for phishing attacks.
* Data loss prevention (DLP)can prevent data exfiltration but does not stop malware from being introduced into the system.
By training employees to recognize and avoid phishing scams, organizations canreduce the risk of malware infections and data breaches.
NEW QUESTION # 338
An enterprise is working with a third party and needs to allow access between the internal networks of both parties for a secure file migration. The solution needs to ensure encryption is applied to all traffic that is traversing the networks. Which of the following solutions should most likely be implemented?
- A. EAP
- B. SD-WAN
- C. IPSec
- D. TLS
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 339
An administrator investigating an incident is concerned about the downtime of a critical server due to a failed drive. Which of the following would the administrator use to estimate the time needed to fix the issue?
- A. RPO
- B. RTO
- C. MTBF
- D. MTTR
Answer: D
Explanation:
MTTR (Mean Time to Repair) measures the average time required to repair a failed component or system and restore it to full functionality, making it the correct metric for estimating downtime due to a failed drive.
NEW QUESTION # 340
A security administrator observed the following in a web server log while investigating an incident:
Which of the following attacks did the security administrator most likely see?
- A. Credential replay
- B. Directory traversal
- C. Privilege escalation
- D. Brute force
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 341
A security practitioner completes a vulnerability assessment on a company's network and finds several vulnerabilities, which the operations team remediates. Which of the following should be donenext?
- A. Submit a report.
- B. Conduct an audit.
- C. Rescan the network.
- D. Initiate a penetration test.
Answer: C
Explanation:
After completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the identified vulnerabilities, the next step is to rescan the network to verify that the vulnerabilities have been successfully fixed and no new vulnerabilities have been introduced. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses andexposures in a network, system, or application that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability assessment typically involves using automated tools, such as scanners, to scan the network and generate a report of the findings. The report may include information such as the severity, impact, and remediation of the vulnerabilities. The operations team is responsible for applying the appropriate patches, updates, or configurations to address the vulnerabilities and reduce the risk to the network. A rescan is necessary to confirm that the remediation actions have been effective and that the network is secure.
Conducting an audit, initiating a penetration test, or submitting a report are not the next steps after completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the vulnerabilities. An audit is a process of reviewing and verifying the compliance of the network with the established policies, standards, and regulations. An audit may be performed by internal or external auditors, and it may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as part of the evidence. However, an audit is not a mandatory step after a vulnerability assessment, and it does not validate the effectiveness of the remediation actions.
A penetration test is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network to test the security defenses and identify any gaps or weaknesses. A penetration test may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as a starting point, but it goes beyond scanning and involves exploiting the vulnerabilities to gain access or cause damage. A penetration test may be performed after a vulnerability assessment, but only with the proper authorization, scope, and rules of engagement. A penetration test is not a substitute for a rescan, as it does not verify that the vulnerabilities have been fixed.
Submitting a report is a step that is done after the vulnerability assessment, but before the remediation. The report is a document that summarizes the findings and recommendations of the vulnerability assessment, and it is used to communicate the results to the stakeholders and the operations team. The report may also include a follow-up plan and a timeline for the remediation actions. However, submitting a report is not the final step after the remediation, as it does not confirm that the network is secure.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 372-375; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 0:00 - 8:00.
NEW QUESTION # 342
Which of the following would be the best way to handle a critical business application that is running on a legacy server?
- A. Segmentation
- B. Decommissioning
- C. Isolation
- D. Hardening
Answer: A
Explanation:
The device is STILL running a critical application. therefore it needs to be connected to the network. a compensating mechanism for this scenario would be segmentation as this would limit the ability of an attacker to pivot from the vulnerable server to the rest of the network.as possible.
NEW QUESTION # 343
An engineer needs to find a solution that creates an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. Which of the following would be the best solution?
- A. Jump server
- B. Proxy server
- C. Hypervisor
- D. RDP server
Answer: A
Explanation:
= A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target system. A jump server can provide an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. A user can connect to the jump server using a secure protocol, such as SSH, and then access the target system from the jump server. This way, the target system is isolated from the external network and only accessible through the jump server. A jump server can also enforce security policies, such as authentication, authorization, logging, and auditing, on the user's connection. A jump server is also known as a bastion host or a jump box. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.3: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 3:
Network Architecture and Design, page 101. Other Network Appliances - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ :
3.3, Video 3:03. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 2.
NEW QUESTION # 344
Various stakeholders are meeting to discuss their hypothetical roles and responsibilities in a specific situation, such as a security incident or major disaster. Which of the following best describes this meeting?
- A. Penetration test
- B. Simulation
- C. Continuity of operations planning
- D. Tabletop exercise
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 345
Which of the following would most likely prevent exploitation of an end-of-life, business-critical system?
- A. Isolation
- B. Monitoring
- C. Decommissioning
- D. Encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Isolation places the end-of-life system on a segmented network or removes its external connectivity, reducing exposure and preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities while it remains in use.
NEW QUESTION # 346
A security administrator would like to protect data on employees' laptops. Which of the following encryption techniques should the security administrator use?
- A. Full disk
- B. Partition
- C. Asymmetric
- D. Database
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Full disk encryption (FDE) is a technique that encrypts all the data on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. FDE protects the data from unauthorized access in case the laptop is lost, stolen, or disposed of without proper sanitization. FDE requires the user to enter a password, a PIN, a smart card, or a biometric factor to unlock the drive and boot the system. FDE can be implemented by using software solutions, such as BitLocker, FileVault, or VeraCrypt, or by using hardware solutions, such as self-encrypting drives (SEDs) or Trusted Platform Modules (TPMs). FDE is a recommended encryption technique for laptops and other mobile devices that store sensitive data.
Partition encryption is a technique that encrypts only a specific partition or volume on a hard drive, leaving the rest of the drive unencrypted. Partition encryption is less secure than FDE, as it does not protect the entire drive and may leave traces of data on unencrypted areas. Partition encryption is also less convenient than FDE, as it requires the user to mount and unmount the encrypted partition manually.
Asymmetric encryption is a technique that uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, to encrypt and decrypt data. Asymmetric encryption is mainly used for securing communication, such as email, web, or VPN, rather than for encrypting data at rest. Asymmetric encryption is also slower and more computationally intensive than symmetric encryption, which is the type of encryption used by FDE and partition encryption.
Database encryption is a technique that encrypts data stored in a database, such as tables, columns, rows, or cells. Database encryption can be done at the application level, the database level, or the file system level.
Database encryption is useful for protecting data from unauthorized access by database administrators, hackers, or malware, but it does not protect the data from physical theft or loss of the device that hosts the database.
References = Data Encryption - CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 4.4, CompTIA Security+ Cheat Sheet and PDF | Zero To Mastery, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Course - Cybr, Application Hardening - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2.
NEW QUESTION # 347
Which of the following would be the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility? (Select two).
- A. Sensor
- B. Badge access
- C. Video surveillance
- D. Access control vestibule
- E. Fencing
- F. Sign-in sheet
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Badge access and access control vestibule are two of the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility. Badge access requires the personnel to present a valid and authenticated badge to a reader or scanner that grants or denies access based on predefined rules and permissions. Access control vestibule is a physical security measure that consists of a small room or chamber with two doors, one leading to the outside and one leading to the secure area. The personnel must enter the vestibule and wait for the first door to close and lock before the second door can be opened. This prevents tailgating or piggybacking by unauthorized individuals.
NEW QUESTION # 348
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