[Dec 18, 2025] New Updated CCAS Exam Questions 2025
Updated Free ACAMS CCAS Test Engine Questions with 102 Q&As
ACAMS CCAS Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 60
What is the most pertinent item for a cryptoasset money services business to include in a suspicious activity report?
- A. The aggregate total amount of fiat currency used by the subject to purchase cryptocurrency
- B. All types of cryptocurrencies purchased by the subject, including aggregate total of each and fiat currency equivalent
- C. The names of every owner of the destination wallet address(es) to which the subject sent transactions during the review period
- D. The subject's account onboarding information not otherwise included in the counter-party information section
Answer: B
Explanation:
SARs should include detailed transactional information to support investigations, including all types and aggregate amounts of cryptocurrencies purchased, along with fiat currency equivalents. This information provides a clear picture of the subject's activity and financial scale.
Owner names of destination wallets (B) may not be available; onboarding info (D) is supplementary, and fiat aggregate totals (C) alone are insufficient.
FATF and DFSA guidance recommend comprehensive transactional data inclusion in SARs to facilitate law enforcement.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which term describes converting one cryptoasset into another without first converting to fiat?
- A. Layering
- B. Chain hopping
- C. Structuring
- D. Integration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Chain hopping involves moving between blockchains to make tracing harder, often exploiting regulatory gaps.
NEW QUESTION # 62
An analyst at a virtual asset service provider (VASP) that white-labels its exchange solution to other cross-border VASPs is developing a VASP onboarding procedure. Under Financial Action Task Force Recommendation 13, which CDD practices should be applied to such relationships? (Select Three.)
- A. Obtain approval from senior management
- B. Obtain approval from the local supervisory authority
- C. Assess the profitability of the VASP relationship
- D. Assess the nature and purpose of the VASP relationship
- E. Assess the VASP's supervision and if a license/registration is needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
FATF Recommendation 13 (Correspondent Banking and Similar Relationships) and its application to VASP-VASP relationships require enhanced due diligence before onboarding. This is because such arrangements carry elevated ML/TF risk, especially in cross-border settings.
Required CDD practices include:
Assess the nature and purpose of the VASP relationship (C): Understand why the relationship is being established and the expected services/products.
Obtain approval from senior management (D): Senior management oversight ensures risk is accepted at the appropriate governance level.
Assess the VASP's supervision and if a license/registration is needed (E): Confirm regulatory oversight, licensing, and compliance with AML/CFT obligations.
Options A and B are not core FATF requirements for CDD in this context - local authority approval may be a domestic regulatory requirement in some countries, but not a FATF baseline, and profitability assessment is a business decision, not an AML measure.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which blockchain characteristic makes forensic tracing of transactions possible?
- A. Decentralized governance
- B. Smart contract automation
- C. Sharding
- D. Immutable public ledger
Answer: D
Explanation:
Blockchain's immutability ensures that all transactions remain permanently recorded and tamper-proof, enabling blockchain analytics to trace illicit funds. This property is leveraged in crypto forensic investigations and AML monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 64
What is the correct risk assessment equation used in AML/CFT compliance frameworks, including for cryptoasset risk evaluations?
- A. Inherent Risk + Control Effectiveness = Residual Risk
- B. Residual Risk + Control Effectiveness = Inherent Risk
- C. Inherent Risk - Control Effectiveness = Residual Risk
- D. Inherent Risk - Residual Risk = Control Effectiveness
Answer: C
Explanation:
In risk-based AML/CFT programs - including those applied to Virtual Asset Service Providers (VASPs) - risk assessment determines the remaining exposure after applying mitigating measures.
Inherent Risk: The natural level of risk before applying any controls, based on factors like customer profile, transaction patterns, and jurisdiction.
Control Effectiveness: The degree to which implemented controls (e.g., CDD, EDD, sanctions screening, blockchain analytics) reduce risk.
Residual Risk: The risk that remains after controls are applied and is the level an organization must either accept, reduce further, or avoid.
The standard formula is:
Inherent Risk - Control Effectiveness = Residual Risk
This equation is emphasized in FATF's risk-based approach guidance and reinforced in DIFC (DFSA) and ADGM (FSRA) AML rules to ensure ongoing monitoring and governance oversight of remaining risks.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which business category below is considered to present the highest risk of money laundering?
- A. Registered hedge fund
- B. Law firm
- C. Art dealer
- D. Pharmaceutical company
Answer: C
Explanation:
Art dealers present a high money laundering risk due to the subjective valuation of art, ease of transferring assets, and the potential for using art as a vehicle to conceal illicit funds.
Registered hedge funds (A) and law firms (C) have AML obligations but are generally more regulated. Pharmaceutical companies (B) are less associated with high ML risk.
The DFSA AML and FATF typology papers specifically identify art dealing as a sector with heightened ML risk.
NEW QUESTION # 66
In considering particular virtual asset products, services, or activities, which features should be considered by management?
- A. Ability to mingle funds within wider pools.
- B. Regulatory expectations.
- C. Ability for other virtual asset service providers (VASPs) to utilize the service to provide services to their own customers.
- D. Transaction volumes.
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
Management must consider a comprehensive set of features when evaluating virtual asset products and services, including:
Ability for other VASPs to utilize the service (A): This increases risk exposure as services may be used indirectly by unknown parties.
Ability to mingle funds within wider pools (B): Mixing services or pooled wallets increase anonymity and laundering risk.
Regulatory expectations (C): Management must ensure compliance with all applicable laws and guidelines.
Transaction volumes (D): High transaction volumes can increase operational risk and require enhanced monitoring.
The DFSA AML and COB Modules, as well as FATF guidance, stress that a risk-based approach requires consideration of all these features in product/service risk assessments.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A compliance officer is conducting an AML risk assessment of two different operating models: a centralized cryptoasset exchange and a decentralized cryptoasset exchange. Which key difference causes the compliance officer to risk-rate the decentralized exchange higher than the centralized exchange?
- A. The lack of a central counterparty
- B. The cost of each transaction
- C. The number of validator nodes
- D. The supported asset types
Answer: A
Explanation:
Decentralized exchanges lack a central counterparty responsible for AML compliance, making it difficult to enforce KYC/CDD, monitor transactions, or implement controls. This structural characteristic increases inherent AML risk compared to centralized exchanges, which have accountable operators.
Transaction cost (A), validator nodes (B), or asset types (D) are less impactful in the compliance risk rating.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which is a type of restricted blockchain?
- A. Public
- B. Private
- C. Hybrid
- D. Consortium
Answer: D
Explanation:
A restricted blockchain is one where participation-either in transaction validation, data access, or both-is limited to selected entities rather than being open to the public.
Consortium blockchain (D) is a common type of restricted blockchain in which multiple pre-approved organizations collectively manage the network. It offers partial decentralization but with controlled membership, making it suitable for regulated environments such as financial services, supply chain tracking, and interbank settlements.
Other options explained:
Hybrid (A): Combines elements of public and private chains, but not necessarily "restricted" in the strict governance sense.
Public (B): Open to anyone to join, read, and write data; not restricted.
Private (C): While private blockchains are also restricted, in AML/CFT guidance, "restricted blockchain" generally refers to consortium arrangements involving multiple vetted participants, rather than a single organization's closed chain.
Regulatory and technical literature in DIFC/ADGM contexts note that consortium blockchains allow for compliance controls, participant vetting, and transaction monitoring-making them particularly suitable for financial ecosystems where controlled access is essential.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Under FATF guidance, "unhosted wallets" are:
- A. Wallets where users control private keys directly.
- B. Custodial wallets held by third parties.
- C. Wallets with multi-sig security.
- D. Wallets managed by regulated exchanges.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Unhosted wallets are self-custody wallets controlled directly by the user without third-party oversight, posing higher anonymity and AML risks.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which metric is most relevant for assessing liquidity risk in a cryptoasset exchange?
- A. Blockchain confirmation times
- B. Number of listed tokens
- C. Wallet address count
- D. Order book depth and spread
Answer: D
Explanation:
Liquidity risk assessment focuses on the ability to execute trades without large price swings, which is reflected in order book depth and bid-ask spreads.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A customer who runs a cryptoasset automated teller machine (ATM) comes into a financial institution and deposits a larger than usual amount. When asked about the deposit, the customer answers there has been broader adoption of cryptoassets in the region where the ATM is located. Which additional information about the business would indicate high risk for money laundering? (Select Two.)
- A. The volume and the number of users increase.
- B. The region is neighboring with a narcotic-producing jurisdiction.
- C. The region is located within a high-risk jurisdiction.
- D. The cryptoasset ATM was recently licensed.
- E. The cryptoasset ATM supports a variety of cryptoassets.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Money laundering risk increases if the business operates in or near high-risk jurisdictions (D) or regions associated with narcotics production (C), as these are common sources of illicit funds.
An increase in volume and users (A) or supporting various cryptoassets (B) alone does not necessarily increase ML risk. Recent licensing (E) may indicate regulatory compliance, potentially lowering risk.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which are essential components of an AML program for Customer Due Diligence (CDD)? (Select Three.)
- A. Procedures to ensure that high-risk customers' IP addresses are subject to ongoing monitoring
- B. Requirement for training of staff responsible for gathering CDD information
- C. Requirement to maintain an accurate and complete list of virtual assets exposed to high risk of misuse
- D. Procedures to address circumstances where the true identity of a customer is questionable
- E. Requirement to keep all information necessary to maintain a customer's risk profile
- F. Procedures to annually review all clients
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
An effective AML CDD program must include:
Staff training on gathering CDD (A)
Maintaining complete information to support risk profiling (B)
Procedures to address situations where the customer's true identity is unclear or questionable (F) Annual client reviews (D) and IP address monitoring (E) may be part of broader AML controls but are not fundamental CDD requirements. Maintaining a list of high-risk virtual assets (C) is important but relates more to product risk management than direct CDD.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which is the discipline of risk management related to the risk of algorithms, machine learning, and artificial intelligence within the transaction monitoring and screening software that a virtual asset service provider acquires from a vendor?
- A. Vendor risk management
- B. Model risk management
- C. Operational risk management
- D. IT security risk management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Model risk management is the discipline focused on managing risks arising from the use of models, including those based on algorithms, machine learning, and AI in transaction monitoring and screening software.
DFSA and global AML frameworks highlight the need for strong model risk governance to ensure accurate detection and compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which blockchain feature ensures that once a block is added, it cannot be altered without network consensus?
- A. Consensus algorithm
- B. Hash immutability
- C. Tokenization
- D. Peer-to-peer networking
Answer: B
Explanation:
Hash immutability means that altering any transaction would require changing all subsequent blocks and achieving majority consensus. This security property underpins blockchain integrity and forensic traceability, crucial in AML investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following are functions of cryptoasset mining? (Select Two.)
- A. Validating transactions on the blockchain
- B. Optimizing and improving the functionality of the network
- C. Ensuring the security of the network
- D. Generating new cryptoassets
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Mining generates new cryptoassets (A) by rewarding miners for solving complex cryptographic puzzles. It also validates transactions on the blockchain (D) by confirming and recording them in blocks, ensuring the integrity of the ledger.
While mining indirectly contributes to network security, the core security mechanisms involve consensus protocols beyond mining alone (B). Optimizing network functionality (C) is usually a development task rather than a mining function.
NEW QUESTION # 76
In cryptoasset AML programs, "ongoing monitoring" means:
- A. Checking customer activity only when onboarding
- B. Only screening customers for sanctions once
- C. Continuous review of transactions to detect anomalies
- D. Freezing all suspicious accounts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ongoing monitoring is the continuous analysis of customer activity to detect unusual or suspicious patterns over time.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which statement describes what a staff member should do If suspicious activity is identified?
- A. Inform the customer of concerns about the suspicious activity to obtain clarification.
- B. Report the suspicious activity immediately to the financial investigation unit.
- C. Monitor the customer's transactions for the next 6 months to analyze the customer's behavior
- D. Report the suspicious activity immediately to the designated Money Laundering Reporting Officer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Staff must report any suspicious activity immediately to the designated Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) or equivalent within their organization. The MLRO is responsible for assessing the suspicion and deciding on escalation to the relevant authorities.
Informing customers (A) could compromise investigations. Reporting directly to financial investigation units (B) is not the staff member's role. Monitoring transactions without reporting (D) delays required action and risks regulatory non-compliance.
DFSA AML Module and FATF Recommendations emphasize timely internal reporting to designated officers as the first step in managing suspicious activity.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which cryptoasset type is most associated with anonymity risk?
- A. Stablecoin
- B. Privacy coin
- C. Governance token
- D. Security token
Answer: B
Explanation:
Privacy coins like Monero use cryptographic features to obscure transaction details, increasing AML risk and regulatory scrutiny.
NEW QUESTION # 79
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